defining words in scripture

Peter Ruckman Goes To The Greek Over Three Wives

Scotty Erb

Scotty Erb

— 2 min read
Peter Ruckman Goes To The Greek Over Three Wives

The man Peter Ruckman was nothing great really, Jesus is great not Peter. Even though he was a big advocate for the KJV being God's perfect word, Peter Ruckman did not truly believe in every word of the KJV, as he still would run to the Hebrew and Greek at times. The example shown in this video is when Ruckman ran to the Greek to explain away why he had 3 different wives.

The husband of one wife means the husband of one wife. The word of God is not of any private interpretation. Yet Peter Ruckman relies on the Greek text to prove that "husband of one wife" means one wife at a time. He is saying a pastor cannot be guilty of polygamy instead of just reading the KJV as it is.

1 Timothy 3:2 KJV  A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;

2 Peter 1:20 KJV  Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation.

In the same book / epistle of Paul (1 Timothy) we see a comparison for the scriptural requirement for a bishop, defined in scripture in the qualifications for a widow indeed. In 1 Timothy 5 it says the following...

1 Timothy 5:9 KJV  Let not a widow be taken into the number under threescore years old, having been the wife of one man,

So what does this mean for a woman to be counted as a widow indeed? That she would have to have been married to only one man. The same as for a bishop in 1 Timothy 3:2 when it says "the husband of one wife" it means he was only married to one woman.

In the video study you will see what Jesus says regarding this matter also.

John 4:17-18 KJV  The woman answered and said, I have no husband. Jesus said unto her, Thou hast well said, I have no husband:  (18)  For thou hast had five husbands; and he whom thou now hast is not thy husband: in that saidst thou truly.

It is very odd that Peter Ruckman, who is an apparent defender of the KJV, would go to Greek texts for it's reading. Regardless of this, when it came to a personal matter in his life, he went straight to the Greek to explain away things. This way he can still be considered qualified to be a bishop, even if he has had three wives since being saved. In doing this, he is defending adultery, along with not holding to the blessed word of God.
The question arises with this...
Why not use the word of God that you claim to be perfect if what you believe is actually right according scripture?
Except if the matter is not according to scripture and is merely a personal belief; so leading Ruckman to run to the Greek to explain something away.
And so just as any other religious Pharisee in the modern world, Peter Ruckman also ran to the "original languages", rather than using the book in his hand, that he claimed to be the pure word of God while he taught. Peter Ruckman went outside of that perfect book (the KJV) for his reasoning, teaching the wisdom of men and not the word of God through his own private interpretation.

Please follow in your King James Bible and not holding any man in any particular high regard during this video Bible study. As God is not a respecter of persons, neither should we be. (Romans 2:11 KJV "For there is no respect of persons with God.")

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